John baptized Jesus
Though it is contraray to the prophecy, for argument’s sake let us for a while agree with the contention of the church that this prophecy had been prophesied by John himself in connection with Jesus.If it were so ..
A. in no way could John baptize Jesus - that too in water. And on the other hand he himself should have been baptized by Jesus in Holy Ghost. But quite contrary to this we read in Gospel that Jesus was baptized in water by John.
Then cometh Jesus from Galilee to Jordan unto John, to be baptized of him. But John forbade him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me? And Jesus answering said unto him, suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him. -Matthew 3:13-15
According to the intepretation of the Church in the light of this prophecy, John being the prophesying person (according to Church) he was incompetent even to bear the shoes of Jesus. If this be his derogatoy state, why Jesus took all the pains to come all the way from Galilee to Jordan where John was baptizing? Did he come there to baptize John in Holy Ghost? No-But he himself to be baptized of him in water.
Adjustments made on mutual consent
Just to erase this likely suspense and suspicion even from the minds of elite Christians, the Church tries to divert their minds to make them think that John was really to be baptized of Jesus by forwarding the conversation between John and Jesus as cited below.
John says - “ I have need to be baptized of you” and enquires to Jesus - “Comest thou to me?” (Matthew 3:13-15)
On any particular reason, Jesus might not have baptized John, which point however would not matter except of depriving him(John) of being baptized in Holy Ghost by a greater one. But what surprises one and matters adversely is -that Jesus himself was baptized by John. If the prophecy were about him(Jesus), could he ever have allowed such thing to be done? If John were the prophesying person, could he ever have missed the opportunity of being baptized by Jesus in Holy Ghost for the remission of sins? And in reply Jesus says to John - “Suffer it to be so now.” (Matthew 3:13-15)
According to Church he(Jesus) was sent to baptize in Holy Ghost. But as a matter of fact asks John the unworthy person (according to church) to baptize him in water.
Were he really appointed to baptize in Holy Ghost could he ever have been baptized in water?
Were they the real persons as one as prophesying one, and the other, one about whom this prophecy was made, as Church professes, could they have made adjustments in baptisms according to their mutual consent agreed upon, leaving aside the commandments of God in this respect?
Baptism in water continued - still continues in the churches
B. John should have desisted himself from giving baptism in water from the very next moment of Jesus’ appearance. And Jesus should have begun the procedure of giving baptism in Holy Ghost. Thus the procedure of giving baptism in water should have been replaced by the system of baptizing in Holy Ghost.
None of the two points can positively be answered by the church. And on the other hand the system of baptizing people in water which Jesus adopted, has been in practice eversince.
And again
John did not join the company of Jesus - nor his disciples
C. John in no way could have his independant mission along with his own disciples, but should have joined the company of Jesus (altogether) and become his disciples.
Except two, no other disciple of John had joined the company of Jesus. And John had his own mission.
1. Again the next day after John stood and two of his disciples; and looking upon Jesus as he walked, he saith, behold the lamb of God. And the two disciples heard him speak, and they followed Jesus. -John 1:35-37
2. After these things came Jesus and his disciples into the land of Judea, and there he tarried with them, and baptized. And John also was baptizing in Aenon near to salim, because there was much water there: and they came, and were baptized. For John was not yet cast in to prison. Then there arose a question between some of John’s disciples and the Jews about prurifying. And they came unto John, and said unto him, Rabbi, he that was with thee beyond Jordan, to whom thou barest witness, behold the same baptizeth, and all men come to him. -John 3:22-26
3. When therefore the Lord knew how the pharisees had heard that Jesus made and baptized more disciples than John... -John 4:1
4. Now when John had heard in the prison the works of Christ, he sent two of his disciples. -Matthew 11-2
5. And his (John’s) disciples came and took up the body, and buried it and went and told Jesus. -Matthew 14:12
The above references clearly show that except the two no other disciple of John had joined the company of Jesus. And also tell us that both John and Jesus were performing their ministries separately at the same period.
D. John had led his own separate mission with separate system of prayer.
Thus we read-
And it came to pass that, as he was praying in a certain place, when he ceased, one of his disciples said unto him, Lord, teach us to pray, as John also taught his disciples. -Luke 11:1
If this had really been prophesied by John about Jesus, then why did not he allow his disciples to join the company of Jesus and why did he lead his own separate mission?
These two points prove beyond doubt that this was not prophesied by John about Jesus.
We are sure that Church has no proper answers for our questions which have been raised so far, except some irrelevant interpretations in the manner of escapism or in an apologetic way or in compromising attitude.
The main reasons for our declaration that this was not prophesied by John about Jesus are as mentioned below.
No doubt that John had baptized people in water. Yet it does not give sanction to the claim of Church that John had prophesied this and that about Jesus only, until it is made known that Jesus had baptized people in Holy Spirit.
As a matter of fact that all the prophets from the times of Abraham to John and Jesus had been in know about the advent of a greater prophet of sure of this prophecy; and all had also prophesied about that prophet. And likewise John too might have prophesied. But those prophecies of John have not been recorded in the Gospels. As regards to other prophets and their prophecies about the advent of that prophet, some prophecies have been incorporated in other books of the Bible but many were lost or might have wantonly been excluded. Now what our argument is that this prophecy under discussion is not the one that had been prophesied by John about Jesus. Even if it is admitted that it had been prophesied by John himself the prophecy does not in any way attract (apply) to the person of Jesus. And in support of our claim we would like to illuminate on the following more important points in addition to what so far have been discussed.
No comments:
Post a Comment